Consider two Bayesian updates, where there are two observations. One updates with respect to $x_1$, and then uses the posterior of that as a prior to update with respect to $x_2$. In both cases, $x_1$ and $x_2$ are considered conditionally independent given the parameters (and identically distributed).
The other version updates straight from the start on both examples.
Case a will lead to a posterior $$p(\theta | x_1,x_2) = \frac{p(\theta)p(x_1 | \theta)}{p(x_1)p(x_2)} \times p(x_2 | \theta)$$
Case b will lead to a posterior $$p(\theta | x_1, x_2) = \frac{p(\theta)p(x_1 | \theta)p(x_2 | \theta)}{p(x_1,x_2)}$$
Integrate both sides of both posteriors, and you get 1. Therefore the integrals are equal (to 1). The numerator of the integrals is the same, therefore $$p(x_1,x_2) = p(x_1)p(x_2)!!$$
That seems to me very strange. Should $x_1$ and $x_2$ be independent even when considering their marginal version, and not conditioning on the parameters?