I have a seemingly trivial yet troublesome question. Let's consider the following model:
$$\ln(y_i)=\alpha + \beta D_i + \epsilon_i$$
where $D_i$ is a binary variable that indicates whether treatment was assigned to patient $i$.
I understand that $\exp\left(\hat{\beta}\right)-1$ represents the percentage point variation in $y_i$ when treatment is assigned.
However, in a lot of papers I read (and these papers have been subject to peer-review and are very well published), when describing their results, authors write: "from our estimations, we can infer that the assignment of treatment leads to a $\hat{\beta}$ percent variation in $y_i$.
I understand that this is linear approximation but when coefficients are large this approximation becomes inaccurate. So why don't authors simply report the percentage variation from the exponentiated coefficient? Am I missing something here?
Any comment is welcome. Thanks a lot!