4
$\begingroup$

Question:

$X_1 , X_2 , ... X_n$ are unif(0, 1) random variables and $Y_n = {\sqrt n} \min \{{\sqrt X_1}, {\sqrt X_2}, ... {\sqrt X_n}\} $ Consider the sequence $Y_1 , Y_2 , ... Y_n$ and give the pdf or pmf of the limiting distribution, if it exists

My attempt:

The Support of $Y_n$ is $(0, {\sqrt n})$ , so for $ y \le 0$ $F_{Y_n}$ $(y) = 0$ and for $y \ge {\sqrt n}$ we have $ F_{Y_n}$ $(y) = 1$.

Then for $y \in (0, {\sqrt n})$ we have:

$F_{Y_n}$ $(y) = P(Y_n \le y) \\ =P({\sqrt n} \min \{{\sqrt Y_1}, {\sqrt Y_2}, ... {\sqrt Y_n}\} \le y) \\ =P(\min \{{\sqrt Y_1}, {\sqrt Y_2}, ... {\sqrt Y_n}\} \le y/{\sqrt n}) \\ =[1 - (1 - (y/{\sqrt n}))]^n$

which gives you the cdf: $F_{Y_n}$ $(y) = \begin{cases} 1, & y \ge {\sqrt n} \\ [1 - (1 - (y/{\sqrt n}))]^n, & 0 \lt y\lt {\sqrt n} \\ 0, & \ y\le 0 \end{cases}$

Then: $\lim_{n\to\infty} F_{Y_n} (y) = \begin{cases} 1 - e^{-y}, & y \gt 0 \\ 0, & \ y\le 0 \end{cases}$

And the pdf is then: $f_{Y_n} (y) = e^{-y}$ where $y \ge 0$

Is this correct? Not very confident in what I have done.

$\endgroup$
3
  • $\begingroup$ "$\leq \sqrt n/y$" in the third line of $F_{Y_n}(y) =$ should be $\leq y/\sqrt n$, but you got it right in the next line, so it looks like a typo. $\endgroup$
    – jbowman
    Commented Oct 4, 2016 at 18:27
  • $\begingroup$ What is the relationship between $X_i$ and $Y_i$? Furthermore, your formula $$Y_n = \sqrt{n} \min\{ \sqrt{Y_1}, \sqrt{Y_2}, \ldots, \sqrt{Y_n} \}$$ is self-referential. $\endgroup$
    – heropup
    Commented Oct 4, 2016 at 18:41
  • $\begingroup$ Your evaluation of the limit does not look correct. Note that $$\left(1-\frac{y}{\sqrt{n}}\right)^n=\left(\left(1-\frac{y}{\sqrt{n}}\right)^{\sqrt{n}/y}\right)^{y\sqrt{n}}.$$ Letting $m=\sqrt{n}/y$, the inner part is in the form $(1-1/m)^m$, whose limit as $n\to\infty$ indeed is $\exp(-1)$, but it remains to raise that to the $y\sqrt{n}$ power. $\endgroup$
    – whuber
    Commented Oct 4, 2016 at 19:36

1 Answer 1

6
$\begingroup$

It's best to proceed step by step. Consider $$W_i = g(X_i) = \sqrt{X_i}, \quad i = 1, 2, \ldots.$$ Then $$\Pr[W_i > w] = \Pr[\sqrt{X_i} > w] = \Pr[X_i > w^2] = 1 - w^2, \quad 0 \le w \le 1.$$ Consequently, $$\Pr[Y_n > y] = \Pr[\sqrt{n} W_{(1)} > y] = \Pr[W_{(1)} \ge y/\sqrt{n}] = \prod_{i=1}^n \Pr[W_i > y/\sqrt{n}],$$ where $W_{(1)} = \min\{W_1, \ldots, W_n\}$ is the minimum order statistic of the root-transformed uniform $X_i$s. Then the rest is straightforward computation: $$S_{Y_n}(y) = \Pr[Y_n > y] = (1 - y^2/n)^n,$$ hence in the limit as $n \to \infty$, the survival function becomes $$S_{Y_\infty}(y) = e^{-y^2}, \quad y > 0,$$ and the asymptotic density is $$f_{Y_\infty}(y) = 2ye^{-y^2},$$ which implies $$Y_\infty \sim \operatorname{Weibull}(k = 2, \lambda = 1) \sim \operatorname{Rayleigh}(\sigma^2 = 1/2);$$ i.e., Weibull with shape $2$ and scale $1$, or equivalently, Rayleigh with scale $1/\sqrt{2}$. This result is supported by simulation, using $10^4$ realizations of $Y_{100}$ as shown below.

enter image description here

$\endgroup$
2
  • $\begingroup$ (+1) you beat me to it. The OP totally ignored how the square root changes the distribution of a single rv in the first place. $\endgroup$ Commented Oct 4, 2016 at 20:04
  • $\begingroup$ Thanks very much @heropup for the detailed explanation. Really appreciated! $\endgroup$ Commented Oct 4, 2016 at 23:20

Your Answer

By clicking “Post Your Answer”, you agree to our terms of service and acknowledge you have read our privacy policy.

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.