Suppose $g_{n} \to g$ and $X_{n} \to X$. Under what conditions on the above function, random variables, and types of convergence would it be true that $g_{n}(X_{n}) \to g(X)$?
EDIT:
I am aware of the continuous mapping theorem, but doesn't the $g_{n}$ make a difference here? For example, suppose $g_{n}: [0,1] \to [0,1]$ satisfies $g_{n}(x)=x^{n}$. Then each $g_{n}$ is continuous and converges to 0 for $x \in [0,1)$ and 1 for $x=1$.
Now let $U_{n} \stackrel{iid}{\sim} U[0,1]$, and $X_{n}=U_{n}^{\frac{1}{n}}\stackrel{d}{\to} 1$.
Then $g(X)=g(1)=1$ but $g_{n}(X_{n}) = U_{n} \sim U[0,1]$ for all $n$.