How can I show that the ARCH(1) process for $y$:
$$y_t=\varepsilon_t=z_t\sigma_t$$ $$\sigma^2_t=\omega+\alpha y^2_{t-1}$$
is actually AR(1) process for $y$:
$$y^2_t=\omega+\alpha y^2_{t-1}+v_t$$
where, $v_t=\sigma^2_t(z^2_t-1)$
I know it is pretty straightforward, but I don't really understand what is this $v_t$ term we are introducing and how can we interpret it in this context?
My calculations:
$y^2_t=z^2_t \sigma^2_t$
$y^2_t=z^2_t(\omega+\alpha y^2_{t-1})$
$z^2_t\sigma^2_t=z^2_t(\omega+\alpha y^2_{t-1})$
$v_t=y^2_t-E(y^2_t|I_{t-1})=y^2_t-\sigma^2_t$
$y^2_t-v_t=\omega+\alpha y^2_{t-1}$
$y^2_t=\omega+\alpha y^2_{t-1}+y^2_t-\sigma^2_t$
$y^2_t=\omega+\alpha y^2_{t-1}+z^2_t\sigma^2_t-\sigma^2_t$
$y^2_t=\omega+\alpha y^2_{t-1}+\sigma^2_t(z^2_t-1)$