Suppose we want to estimate posterior variance of $\alpha$ given x, i.e. var($\alpha|x$). We have MCMC posterior samples $a_1,\dots, a_B$, which are not independent. Does $\hat{\text{var}}(\alpha|x) = \frac{1}{B} \sum (a_i-\bar{a})^2$ still serve as a good estimator for var($\alpha|x$)? Since the samples are not independent, we can't get consistency of $\hat{\text{var}}(\alpha|x)$ from law of large number.
In an extreme case of correlated posterior samples, if $a_i $s are all the same, then $\hat{\text{var}}(\alpha|x)$ is definitely not a good estimator.
So in practice how should we estimate posterior variance from MCMC samples?