5
$\begingroup$

I'm wondering why variance has additive property, as opposed to why this property doesn't extend to standard deviation? Additive property is defined as:

Var(A+B) = Var(A) + Var(B)

I imagine this as adding two distribution together which makes sense. But in that case SD should have similar property as well. Why does variance possess this magical property?

$\endgroup$
4
  • 4
    $\begingroup$ This is only the case if $A$ and $B$ are uncorrelated random variables. If this holds, then $\text{Sd}(A+B)=\sqrt{\text{Var}(A)+\text{Var}(B)}$, which doesn't equal $\text{Sd}(A)+\text{Sd}(B)$ simply because $\sqrt{a+b}\ne \sqrt a+\sqrt b$ in general. $\endgroup$ Commented Feb 3, 2019 at 20:26
  • 1
    $\begingroup$ @StubbornAtom you should make it an answer. $\endgroup$
    – Tim
    Commented Feb 3, 2019 at 22:17
  • $\begingroup$ @StubbornAtom I see. Why is it Var (A+B) = Var(A)+Var(B) instead of Sd(A+B)² = (Sd(A)+Sd(B))². Of course I understand (Sd(A)+Sd(B))² ≠ Sd(A)² + Sd(B)². In my own uninitiated terms, what is the magical property of variance that standard deviation do not possess. $\endgroup$
    – Fudge
    Commented Feb 5, 2019 at 15:34
  • 2
    $\begingroup$ @FudgeAruth No magic. By definition, $\text{var}(A+B)=E(A+B-E(A+B))^2=E[(A+B)^2]-[E(A+B)]^2$. Now use the linearity of expectation to arrive at $\text{var}(A+B)=\text{var}(A)+\text{var}(B)+2\text{cov}(A,B)$. More details here. $\endgroup$ Commented Feb 5, 2019 at 15:45

2 Answers 2

8
$\begingroup$

It doesn't!

In general:

Var(A+B) = Var(A) + Var(B) + Cov(A, B)

The additive property only holds if the two random variables have no covariation. This is almost a circular statement, since a legitimate definition of the covariation could be:

Cov(A, B) = Var(A) + Var(B) - Var(A + B)

This means that the covariance measures the failure of the additive property of variance.

This leads to the true heart of the matter, the covariance is bi-linear:

Cov(A_1 + A_2, B) = Cov(A_1, B) + Cov(A_2, B)
Cov(A, B_1 + B_2) = Cov(A, B_1) + Cov(A, B_2)

For an intuitive understanding of this, I'll link to the wonderful: How would you explain covariance to someone who understands only the mean?. In particular, see @whuber's answer.

$\endgroup$
4
$\begingroup$

enter image description here

The first thing to notice is that Var(A+B) equals VarA + Var B only when Cov(A,B)=0.

To gain some intuition behind the relationship between sd(A+B) and sd(A)+sd(B), notice that in order to complete the square in this expression enter image description here

Cov(A,B) would have to equal sd(A)*sd(B). The next question is whether that ever happens? Indeed it does. The Cauchy Schwartz inequality gives us the inequality below:

enter image description here.

Whenever the following equality holds enter image description here, we can complete the square and obtain that sd(A+B)=sd(A)+sd(B). However, in all other cases, sd(A+B) will not equal sd(A)+sd(B).

$\endgroup$
2
  • 5
    $\begingroup$ You know you can use MathJax here instead of copy-pasting images of math formulas, right? $\endgroup$ Commented Feb 3, 2019 at 21:43
  • $\begingroup$ I was actually looking for a solution on this front :) Thank you for the link. $\endgroup$ Commented Feb 3, 2019 at 21:44

Your Answer

By clicking “Post Your Answer”, you agree to our terms of service and acknowledge you have read our privacy policy.

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.