I'm interested in finding the CDF and PDF of $U_i$ defined as follows,
$$U_i=\frac g{d^{\alpha}}$$
where $g$ is a gamma distributed random variable with shape $k$ and scale $\theta$, and $d$ is a random variable with distribution $f_d(x)=\frac {2x}{R^2}, 0\le x \le R$.
To find the CDF of $U_i$
$$F_{U_i}(y)=P(U_i<y)=\int_0^R F_g(yx^\alpha)f_d(x)dx$$
where $F_g(y)$ is the CDF of gamma distributed random variable.
After performing the integration, which requires the use of the expansion of incomplete gamma function, I came to the following CDF:
$$F_{U_i}(y)=\sum_{n=0}^\infty \frac {2(-1)^nR^{k\alpha+n\alpha}y^{k+n}}{\Gamma(k)n!\theta^{k+n}(k+n)(k\alpha+n\alpha+2)}$$
I want the CDF in this format because my ultimate goal is to find the CDF of $U=\sum_{i=1}^NU_i$ which requires me to find the Laplace transform of $F_{U_i}(y)$ and raise it to power $N$.
Now it's easy to find the PDF of $U_i$, i.e. $f_{U_i}(y)=\frac {d}{dy}F_{U_i}(y)$.
I'm looking for someone to clarify these points to me:
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$\begingroup$ Please explain why you think this series diverges. As far as I can tell, for most values of $\alpha$ (including all positive values) it is an entire function: it converges everywhere in the complex plane. $\endgroup$– whuber ♦Commented Jan 18, 2020 at 15:12
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$\begingroup$ @whuber if it converges how do you proof $\int_0^\infty f_{U_i}(y) dy=1$? $\endgroup$– WilliamCommented Jan 18, 2020 at 20:04
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$\begingroup$ That's irrelevant, because a more basic problem is that $F_{U_i}$ obviously is not a CDF, since it is directly proportional to $\theta^{-k}.$ Thus, there is at most one $\theta$ that could possibly make this a valid CDF and for arbitrary $\theta$ and $k$ it cannot be a CDF. $\endgroup$– whuber ♦Commented Jan 18, 2020 at 20:18
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$\begingroup$ If it's not a CDF then was my derivation wrong? $\endgroup$– WilliamCommented Jan 18, 2020 at 20:29
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$\begingroup$ It must have been. There are some simple checks. One of them is that because $\theta$ is a scale parameter for $g,$ it must be a scale parameter for $U_i,$ whence the CDF must be a function of $y/\theta$--but it is not. Another is to plug in simple values of parameters. E.g., $\alpha=1,$ $k=1,$ $R=1$ gives a sum that evaluates to $(y^2 + 2e^{-y}(y+1)-2)/y^2,$ which works, so you might be close. $\endgroup$– whuber ♦Commented Jan 18, 2020 at 20:38
1 Answer
The series converges to a distribution function. It can be evaluated in closed form.
Upon identifying the terms varying with $n,$ write your function in a simpler form as
$$\begin{equation*} F_{U_i}(y)=\frac{2(R^{\alpha}y/\theta)^k}{\Gamma(k)}\sum_{n=0}^\infty \frac {(-R^\alpha y / \theta)^n}{n!(k+n)((k+n)\alpha+2)} \\ = \frac{2x^k}{\Gamma(k)}\sum_{n=0}^\infty \frac{(-x)^n}{n!\,(k+n)((k+n)\alpha+2)} \end{equation*}$$
for $x = R^\alpha y /\theta.$ In other words, $\sigma=\theta/R^\alpha$ is a scale parameter.
Assuming (from the form of the expression $g/d^\alpha$) that $\alpha \gt 0,$ every one of the terms in the sum is bounded above in size by $x^n / n!$ showing the sum is dominated by the absolutely convergent series for $\exp(x),$ whence the sum converges absolutely for all $x.$
To evaluate such a sum we will use partial fractions. Consider the simpler function
$$h(x, a) = \sum_{n=0}^\infty \frac{(-1)^n x^n}{n! (a+n)}$$
with $a \ge 0.$ Similar considerations demonstrate absolute convergence so we may differentiate term by term to obtain
$$\frac{\mathrm{d}}{\mathrm{d}x} \left(x^a h(x,a)\right) = \sum_{n=0}^\infty \frac{(-1)^n x^{n+a-1}}{n!} = x^{a-1}\sum_{n=0}^\infty \frac{(-1)^n x^{n}}{n!} = x^{a-1} e^{-x}.$$
Therefore
$$h(x,a) = x^{-a} \int^x t^{a-1} e^{-t}\mathrm{d}t = C + x^{-a}\,\gamma(a, x),$$
where $\gamma$ is the lower Incomplete Gamma Function and $C$ is a constant of integration. It can be found by applying L'Hopital's Rule to $x^{-a}\int_0^x t^{a-1} e^{-t}\mathrm{d}t$ as $x\to 0^+$ and comparing the resulting limit of $C+1/a$ to $h(0,a) = (-0)^0/(0!(a+0)) = 1/a$ to conclude $C=0.$
Now because
$$\frac{1}{(k+n)((k+n)\alpha+2)} = \frac{1}{\alpha}\frac{1}{(k+n)(k+n+2/\alpha)} = \frac{1}{2}\left(\frac{1}{k+n} - \frac{1}{k+n+2/\alpha}\right),$$
we again exploit the absolute convergence of the series for $F_{U_i}$ and set $a=k,$ $b=k+2/\alpha$ to express it as
$$F_{U_i}(y) = \frac{2x^k}{\Gamma(k)}\sum_{n=0}^\infty \frac{(-x)^n}{n!\,(k+n)((k+n)\alpha+2)} = \frac{\gamma(k,x) - x^{-\frac{2}{\alpha}}\gamma(k+\frac{2}{\alpha},x)}{\Gamma(k)}$$ where $$x = y/\sigma = R^\alpha y / \theta \text{ and }\sigma=\theta/R^\alpha.$$
Differentiating this to obtain the density is straightforward, yielding
$$\frac{\mathrm{d}}{\mathrm{d}x} F^\prime_{U_i}(y) = \frac{2\gamma(k+2/\alpha, x)}{\alpha \Gamma(k) x^{1 + 2/\alpha}} \ge 0$$
and it is also elementary to establish that
$$\lim_{y\to\infty} F_{U_i}(y) = 1 \text{ and } \lim_{y\to 0^+} F_{U_i}(y) = 0.$$
Therefore $F_{U_i}$ is the CDF of a continuous random variable.
Almost any statistical computing platform will compute the CDF of Gamma variables (or, equivalently, of Chi-squared variables). This is the normalized version of $\gamma.$ For instance, here are R
implementations of $F_{U_i}$ and its derivative:
# CDF
pFU <- function(x, k, alpha, scale=1) {
x <- x / scale
h <- function(x, a)
ifelse(x > 0, exp(pgamma(x, a, log.p=TRUE) + lgamma(a)), 1/a)
(h(x, k) - x^(-2/alpha) * h(x, k + 2/alpha)) / gamma(k)
}
# PDF
dFU <- function(x, k, alpha, scale=1) {
x <- x / scale
ifelse(x <= 0, 0,
2/alpha * exp(-(1 + 2/alpha)*log(x) + pgamma(x, k+2/alpha, log.p=TRUE) +
lgamma(k+2/alpha) - lgamma(k))) / scale
}
Here are plots of them using the curve
function:
The underlying red curves use these functions. As a check, overplotted in black are direct implementations of the original series (for the CDF) and a numerical derivative of pFU
(for the PDF).
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$\begingroup$ How do you integrate the derived pdf from 0 to infinity and you get 1? How can I calculate the expected value? $\endgroup$– WilliamCommented Feb 2, 2020 at 20:31
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$\begingroup$ (1) $F_{U_i}$ already is the integral of the PDF, so just take its limit as the argument goes to $\infty.$ (2) Compute the expected value by integrating $1-F_{U_i}(x)$ from $0$ to $\infty.$ Because $F_{U_i}$ has been expressed in terms of $\gamma,$ this looks is fairly simple. I would integrate by parts. $\endgroup$– whuber ♦Commented Feb 2, 2020 at 21:21
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$\begingroup$ please have a look at my new question. I need $E[x^2] $also $\endgroup$– WilliamCommented Feb 2, 2020 at 21:26