My regression results are as follows.
Variable B exp(B)
age 0.004575 1.004586
capital 0.2250 1.2524
year -0.1026 0.9024
Can someone please help me to interpret these? (eg: one year increase in age would increase/decrease the hazard by Xx%)
For two covariates ($x_1$ and $x_2$), the Cox model is written as (with standard notations) $$ h(t; x_1, x_2) = h_0(t) \exp(x_1 \beta_1 + x_2 \beta_2). $$ To interpret $\beta_1$, note that $$ \frac{h(t; x_1 + 1, x_2)}{h(t; x_1, x_2)} = \exp(\beta_1). $$ In words, the previous equation tells us that whenever $x_1$ increases by 1 unit ($x_2$ being held fixed), the hazard rate is multiplied by $\exp(\beta_1)$.
On the log-scale, we have $$ \log(h(t; x_1 + 1, x_2)) - \log(h(t; x_1, x_2)) = \beta_1. $$
For every unit increase in year, the hazard decreased by 9.8% assuming the other variables are held constant.
