The variable $X$ has a continuous probability density function (for example, it may be normally distributed) with mean $a+b$ and a constant variance, say $1$.
I try to find the following:
$P(ab \geq 0 | X=x)$
Using the Bayes' theorem, can I turn it into this:
$\frac {p(X=x | ab \geq 0) P(ab \geq 0)} {p(X=x)}$?
I find that for it to make sense, I could not have had $P(X=x | ab \geq 0)$ and $P(X=x)$ because otherwise both the numerator and the denominator would be 0, so it has to be $p(X=x | ab \geq 0)$.
I also compared the units of the LHS and the RHS. Probability is a pure number, and let $X$ have the unit, "$unit$", then probability density has the unit "$\frac {1} {unit} = unit^{-1}$".
For the LHS,
$P(ab \geq 0 |X=x) = \frac {P(ab \geq 0, X=x)} {p(X=x)}$. The numerator would have the unit $1•unit^{-1} = unit^{-1}$ and the denominator would have the unit "$unit^{-1}$". These cancel out to give us a pure number as expected.
For the RHS,
The numerator again has the unit $unit^{-1}$ and the denominator has the unit $unit^{-1}$, cancelling out again to give us a pure number.
This hints that the expression is correct.
Is it?