I am just grasping the bias variance trade-off as it is explained by the MSE heuristic. We have that if $y = f(x) + \epsilon$ for $\epsilon \sim N(0,\sigma^2)$ we can show that
\begin{aligned} MSE(y, \hat y) &= Var(\epsilon) + Bias^2(\hat y) + Var(\hat y) \\ &= Var(\epsilon) + Var(\hat y) \qquad \text{ because we assume OLS is unbiased} \end{aligned}
I am confused because when we solve linear regression via MLE, we assume the same $y = f(x) + \epsilon$ for $\epsilon$ normally distributed with variance
$$Var(\epsilon) = MSE(y, \hat y)$$
What happened to the $Var(\hat y)$ term?
Thank you!