I have understood the logrank test as a "safe" or "conservative" way to check for a difference between two survival curves. It is "safe" in the sense that it is a nonparametric test of $h_1(t) = h_2(t)$, where $h_i( \cdot)$ is the hazard function of the $i^{th}$ group. I can't find sources that support this claim of "safety", so I've either invented this interpretation myself or observed it from others over the years.
I have seen sources that say that the logrank test statistic is equivalent to the score test (also called the Legrange multiplier test). I am pulling definitions from these course notes (pg. 14) for anyone who wants to look. The score of a Cox model is $$\sum_{i=1}^{n} \delta_{i}\left\{Z_{i}-E\left(Z ; T_{i}\right)\right\},$$ where $\delta_i$ is an indicator of whether the subject $i$ has an event, $T_i$ is the possibly-censored survival time, $Z_i$ is a covariate like treatment assignment, and $E\left(Z ; T_{i}\right)$ is the expectation of $Z_i$. This is equivalent (or analogous??) to the "Observed - Expected" form of the logrank test.
I have two related questions:
- Since the logrank test and Cox regression have this equivalence, is my perception incorrect that the logrank test is "safer" than Cox regression?
- A cox model assumes that the hazard functions are proportional with the same baseline hazard: $h(t | Z_i) = h_0(t) * \exp(Z_i \times \beta)$. I am not aware of any assumptions for the logrank test. My perception has always been that a logrank test statistics must be better than Cox regression in terms of power or asymptotic efficiency or something since it is not making an assumption of proportional hazards. Is this actually true?