In Bayesian Data Analysis, PDF freely available, section 4.1 (page 84, bottom) there is a comment saying:
If we had instead constructed the normal approximation in terms of $p(\mu, \sigma^2)$, the second derivative matrix would be multiplied by the Jacobian of the transformation from $\log\sigma$ to $\sigma^2$ and the mode would change slightly, to $\tilde{\sigma}^2 = \frac{n}{n+2}\hat{\sigma}^2$.
My question is how do we compute the Jacobian from $\log\sigma$ to $\sigma^2$? I can differentiate one function with respect to the other but I can't reconcile the stated change in mode (which makes me think I'm mistaken).
Thanks in advance