Many times I differentiated the MLE of the normal distribution, but when it came to $\sigma$ I always stopped at the first derivative, showing that indeed:
$$\hat\sigma^2 = \frac{\sum(y_i-\bar y)^2}{n} $$
But I haven't seen anywhere a proof this is indeed a maximum point. I tried now to differentiate it again, and look at the the 2nd derivative on that point, and yet I get (unless I made a mistake) that for some small value of $\sum(y_i-\bar y)^2$ the 2nd derivative on this point can actually be positive.
So how do you prove that $\hat\sigma^2$ is indeed a maximum?