I have an guess in a larger stochastic problem. I assume following:
Let $x,y$ be two variables, with $y<x$ and let $f(\cdot)$, $F(\cdot)$ be the a continous PDF and CDF with support $[0,z]$. I would like to know for which cases it holds that:
$$\int_0^{z} \int_0^{x} y f(x)f(y)\mathrm{d}y\mathrm{d}x=\int_0^{z}xf(x)(1-F(x))\mathrm{d}x,$$
with $z \in \mathbb{R}_{++}$
Ive tried to use differentation by parts, but assume that the solution has something to do with partial expectation. I know that I can rearrange the left hand-side, using Riemmann-Stieltje integral to: $$\int_0^{z} \int_0^{x} y f(x)f(y)\mathrm{d}y\mathrm{d}x=\int_0^{z}f(x)\int_0^{x}(1-F(y))\mathrm{d}y\mathrm{d}xy-\int_0^{z}xf(x)(1-F(x))\mathrm{d}x$$
but here I'm stuck.
Im if I’m setting $f(\cdot)$ and $F(\cdot)$ as corresponding PDF and CDF of the uniform distribution $[0,1]$, and $z=1$, im getting the same values (1/6) on the lhs and rhs. Same holds for Beta distribution with random shape parameters, and Triangular distribution $[0,1]$ with random mode. Does anybody has a clue?