Let's make it independent from any statistical package, so I will provide just numbers for the illustration. Maybe this give you some clues.
I want to compare two survival curves, for group A and B. Unadjusted for anything, the HR taken from the Cox model (hazards are proportional quite well) is: 3.5
I have 2 covariates:
- Age (discretized <50 years and >= 50 years; Not my decision, please don't ask me to not discretize)
- Sex (Male and Female)
When entered in additive way (in R it would be: ~ AB + Sex + Gender), meaning no interaction between them, I get the HR for the AB = 3 (it decreases).
When I check only the Age + Sex (no AB here), I get that they both are statistically significant p<0.001 with high HR, like 3.5 - 4
There is no interaction between them showed by the model (A*B shows very small effect on the A:B term).
So, using just AB flag gives HR = 3.5 AB adjusted for Age + Sex gives HR = 3
But(!) AB crossed with Age and Sex, i.e. AB * Sex * Age gives HR = 6! And now a few interactions are significant as well.
What's funny, the concordance is almost the same, so I assume the unexplained deviance remains similar. The covariates share some of the effect mutually.
Now, my question is:
When I am asked to "adjust for a covariate", do they mean:
adjust in additive manner, assuming there is no interaction between them, they are "orthogonal", sharing additive parts (mutually exclusive) of the unexplained variance/deviance
adjust in any manner that makes sense, including some interactions, if the model fit is best and it makes sense. For example I can really observe differences at some level of covariates (simple effects)?
If only additive adjustment is allowed, what about the ignored strong (I speak only about really big, visible ones) interactions?
In other words, which model is "adjusted for covariates":
AB + Sex + Gender (sex and gender are not of interest)
AB + strata(Sex) + strata(Gender)
AB * Sex * Gender
AB + Sex * Gender?