I'm reading this interesting blog post explaining Diffusion probabilistic models and trying to understand the following.
In order to compute the reverse process, we need to consider the posterior distribution $q(\textbf{x}_{t-1} | \textbf{x}_t)$ which is said to be intractable ' because it needs to use the entire dataset and therefore we need to learn a model $p_\theta$ to approximate these conditional probabilities in order to run the reverse diffusion process'.
If we use Bayes theorem we have
$$q(\textbf{x}_{t-1} | \textbf{x}_t) = \frac{q(\textbf{x}_t |\textbf{x}_{t-1})q(\textbf{x}_{t-1})}{q(\textbf{x}_t)}$$
I understand that indeed we don't have any prior knowledge of $q(\textbf{x}_{t-1})$ or $q(\textbf{x}_t)$ since this would mean already having the distribution we are trying to estimate. Is this correct?
The above posterior becomes tractable when conditioned on $\textbf{x}_0$ and we obtain
$$q(\textbf{x}_{t-1} | \textbf{x}_t , \textbf{x}_0) = \mathcal{N}(\tilde{\bf{\mu}}(\textbf{x}_t , \textbf{x}_0) \, , \, \tilde{\beta}_t \textbf{I})$$
So apparently we obtain a posterior that can be calculated in closed form when we condition on the original data $\textbf{x}_0$. At this point, I don't understand the role of the model $p_\theta$ : why do we need to tune the parameters of a model if we can already obtain our posterior?