An analytic platform takes a sales data and runs it against individual external indicators ( macroeconomic, climate data etc.) to find the predictive indicators. For a given indicator, they calculate the correlation between the sales data and the indicator (with its lags), the lag which gives the highest correlation is said ‘lead time’. For example, lead time is 1, the sales data is correlated with the indicator’s past month.
Before they calculate the correlations, they remove the seasonality from the sales data. I believe to do correlation analysis between two time series they both need to be stationary, a great explanation is here Does correlation assume stationarity of data?.
But a very similar question is asked here Identifying Early Indicators Time Series Analysis and one response was ‘ you said: Make product demand series and indicator candidate series stationary (for example through differencing) I say : Not necessarily as you my be vitiating the importance of the predictor series by pre-empting the effect’.
Because removing only seasonality doesn’t make the sales data stationary if it has a trend, the determined lead times would be the result of correlations analysis between a non-stationary and stationary data (assuming the indicator is stationary). My question is can these lead times still represent the true lead times? Should the sales data be made stationary or not? I appreciate your answer. Thanks
(P.S. The analytic platform does not use ARIMAX, to predict the sales, they simply calculate the correlations (Pearson) with each indicator and apply multiple regression with the chosen indicators lags.)