In this post, the author shows that when a likelihood and prior are both T-distributed with $2$ degrees of freedom, the posterior is bimodal. The given reason is that
The two modes persist - the extra mass in the tails means each distribution finds the other's mode more plausible and so the average isn't the best "compromise".
The distributions are
$$y \sim T(\text{df} = 2, \mu = \mu_0)$$
$$\mu_0 \sim T(\text{df}=2, \mu = 10)$$
What exactly does it mean that each distribution finds the other's mode more plausible? Is this something peculiar about the T distribution or can this be generalized elsewhere?
Code to reproduce the results available here.