Suppose you have a hierarchical random intercept model with a dependent variable that is zero inflated. The link function is linear and the priors for the coefficients are normally distributed. In BRMS the model looks like this:
model <- brm(DV ~ (1 | Level_1) + (1|Level_1:Level_2) +(1|Level_1:Level_2:Level_3)
I ran such a model and obtained a normally distributed error term. I would like to better understand the statistical process behind this. Given that the DV is zero inflated, how can the normally distributed priors for the coefficients lead to a normally distributed error term? Does this mean that the posterior predictive values for the DV are also zero inflated (they are, when I look at them, but do they HAVE to be to obtain a normally distributed error term)?