No, they don't. That's one of the reasons to use them in place of repeated measures ANOVA, which does assume this. There are many references for this, it's in several books on mixed models (aka multilevel models) but I don't have those books any more. But I am pretty sure they are listed in e.g. Gelman and Hill Data Analysis Using Regression and Hierarchical/Multilevel Models and many other texts on the subject.
Google found this article
Magezi (2015). Linear mixed-effects models for within-participant psychology experiments: an introductory tutorial and free, graphical user interface (LMMgui). Frontiers in Psychology.
Which looks pretty good and non-technical.
Chapter 12 of Introduction to Multilevel Models by Shaw and Flake, lists these assumptions of MLMs:
In brief, the assumptions underlying MLMs are as follows:
- The model is correctly specified (i.e., all the predictors associated with the outcome and relevant random effects are included);
- The functional form is correct (e.g., the relationship between the predictors and outcome is linear if using a linear model);
- Level-1 residuals are independent and normally distributed;
- Level-2 residuals are independent and multivariate normally distributed;
- Residuals at level-1 and level-2 are unrelated;
- Predictors at one level are not related to errors at another level (homoscedasticity).