I'm currently reading The Book of Why, and on pg 147-149 it talks about double blind RCT being very highly regarded in experiments, especially in the way it address confounders.
In theory, I can understand the confounders wash out in the limit of infinite trials. In practice, however, such as in the field of medicine, advertising, or crop yields in response to fertiliser choice as the book uses, I suspect there's rarely sufficiently many trials to even partially obtain the asymptotic properties of eliminating the effects of confounders. Without the ability to do a huge number of actual random trials, not actively controlling for confounders is worse, I would argue.
Moreover, in the case of double blind RCT, how does making potentially confounding factors unobservable to both the experimenter and the study participant improve study outcomes? One such example which come to mind is self-selection bias. Another is censorship in the context of survival analysis. Whether the study is double blind makes no difference to these, whereas they can be controlled for if the experimenter is allowed to active design their study.
So perhaps the double blind is simply there to address biases from the experimenter and participant, and to make studies more comparable across the board. But even this I take issue with because I think is equivalent to saying, on average, the ability for experimenters to control for confounders is worse than random. The only scenario where this makes sense is every study controlling for the same thing, which results in systematic bias. This is a fair concern, but I'm not sure how realistic it is. In all other cases, the individual experimental biases average out to noise in aggregate.
The other argument for double blind RCT is that it makes studies' results comparable, but I'd argue single blind is just as comparable. To me it seems obvious the residual effect after controlling for the major known factors will give stronger indication of the strength of the effect than those obtained which does not control for them. Eg. Suppose we have three studies on the effect of X on Y. The first controls for A, B, and C. The second study controls for A, B, D. The third controls for C, D, F. Then we have another set of double blind studies which controls for none of A-F. I just picture the mixture distribution of the first set of studies to be that much clearer than the second set due their attempt at isolating effect from noise.