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In logistic regression, I have a variable with larger coefficient and larger p-value and another variable with smaller coefficient and smaller p-value. If use p-value then the latter one is more significant, but if calculate odds ratio, the first one is more influential. How should I interpret this? Which one is more important in the model?

High: coef:-0.0153869 p-value:0.0000257266774040

Low : coef:-0.0052793 p-value: < 0.0000000000000002

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    $\begingroup$ (1) What are the units in which each coefficient is measured? (2) What do you mean by "important"? $\endgroup$
    – Scortchi
    Commented Mar 31, 2014 at 15:29
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    $\begingroup$ In addition to Scorchi's input: how would you judge the same setting in linear regression? (Compare betas instead of odds ratios) $\endgroup$
    – Michael M
    Commented Mar 31, 2014 at 15:56
  • $\begingroup$ Hi Scortchi, thanks for reply. I just realized the ranges of these two variables are different. That is why this happened, right?Here important I mean which variable has stronger predictive power over another. $\endgroup$
    – Yoki
    Commented Mar 31, 2014 at 16:37
  • $\begingroup$ Hi Michael, odds ratio is just take log to betas. So compare betas and odds ratios are the same, right? $\endgroup$
    – Yoki
    Commented Mar 31, 2014 at 16:39

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It doesn't make much sense to compare coefficients to p-values like you do. This has nothing to do with logistic regression in particular, the same applies to linear regression, so let us use that as an example.

If the model is $Y_i = \beta_0 + \beta_1 x_i + \epsilon_i$, but then you transform the predictor linearly to $Y_i = \beta_0^* + \beta_1^* (1000000 \cdot x_i) + \epsilon_i$, then on the same data, $\hat{\beta_1^*} = \hat{\beta_1}/1000000$. The p-values, will be identical. So trying to interpret coefficients, forgetting about the scale of the predictors, does not make sense.

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  • $\begingroup$ Let's assume that all variables are normalized to be in the same range. Then how would you answer your original question? $\endgroup$
    – Binu Jasim
    Commented Oct 20, 2022 at 13:43
  • $\begingroup$ @Binu Jasim: Even if all predictors are normalized, the answer remains the same. $\endgroup$ Commented Oct 20, 2022 at 13:55
  • $\begingroup$ My doubt, as in the original question is, if we have a variable with a relatively large positive coefficient, but having a p-value > 0.1, then this variable is not significant. Yet increasing the value of the variable increases the output value of the logistic regression. So how is this variable not significant in the first place? Seems like I am having some fundamental mis-understanding somewhere. I will be glad if you could help. Thanks. $\endgroup$
    – Binu Jasim
    Commented Oct 20, 2022 at 16:30

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