The thread has long been inactive, but I'd like to add one thing to Maarten Buis's already perfect answer.
The logit model is $\log( p(X)/(1-p(X)) ) = X\beta$, where $p(X) = P(Y=1|X)$. When $X$ increases from $x$ ($\mathit{before}$, say) to $x+\Delta x$ ($\mathit{after}$, say), the log-odds increases by $\Delta x\beta$:
$$\log (\mathit{odds}_{after}) - \log (\mathit{odds}_{before}) = (x+\Delta x)\beta - x\beta = \Delta x\beta.$$
Since $\log(a)-\log(b)=\log(a/b)$, the LHS is the log odds-ratio:
$$\log \left( \frac{\mathit{odds}_{after}}{\mathit{odds}_{before}} \right) = \Delta x\beta,$$
and thus the odds-ratio is $\exp(\Delta x\beta)$. When other regressors are held fixed and only $x_j$ increases by 1 unit, $\Delta x\beta = \beta_j$ and the corresponding odds-ratio is $\exp(\beta_j)$. That's why odds ratios are computed as $\exp(\hat\beta_j)$s from logit regression. Conveniently, the odds ratios do not depend on the initial $x$ but only on $\Delta x$.
The probit model is $\Phi^{-1} (p(X)) = X\beta$, i.e., $p(X) = \Phi(X\beta)$, where $\Phi(\cdot)$ is the standard normal CDF. The associated odds-ratio is
$$\frac{\Phi(x\beta+\Delta x\beta)}{1-\Phi(x\beta+\Delta x\beta)} \bigg/ \frac{\Phi(x\beta)}{1-\Phi(x\beta)},$$
and just that, no further simplification. This odds-ratio depends on $x$ and $\Delta x$ given $\beta$. You can compute the odds-ratios for all observations in the sample with $x$ equal to $x_i$ for some given $\Delta x$. The $\exp(\beta_j)$ formula, or $\exp(\Delta x \beta)$ in general, makes no sense for probit.