I asked this question in math.SE before. One answer so far, and we were unable to reach a conclusion. It is more related to statistics, so I wanted to post this here.
I have a Gaussian likelihood function, $$p(y|x) = \mathcal{N}(y; Ax, (x^\top V x + \lambda) \otimes I)$$ where $A,V,\lambda$ is known, and $\otimes$ is the Kronecker product. (the notation indicates that covariance is a scalar times identity matrix -- scalar is: $x^\top V x + \lambda$). Note that $A$ is a rectangular matrix, say $m\times k$ with $m>k$, hence $V$ is a $k\times k$ matrix. $\lambda > 0$. $x$ is $k\times 1$ and y is $m\times 1$.
I would like to maximise this with respect to $x$, in other words, solve the following problem, $$x^* = \arg \max_x p(y|x) = \arg \max_x \mathcal{N}(y;Ax,(x^\top V x + \lambda) \otimes I)$$ I tried to take derivative of the log-likelihood and set it to zero, however I was unable to leave out $x$ and obtain an exact solution.
I wonder if there is an exact solution, and if not: what the best numerical scheme (one suggests) is to overcome this problem.
Any help is greatly appreciated. Thanks!
PS: Pseudoinverse is not the solution, according to 2D numerical simulations! And another empirical observation from 2D simulations: As $\lambda \to \infty$ (for very large values), pseudoinverse solution becomes more and more accurate, so this hints about structure of the solution a bit.