4
$\begingroup$

Theory question here:

For Generalized Linear Models, what features do we require for a valid link function and a valid statistical distribution. I feel like the tendency of using exponential-family distributions is largely a factor of convenience (since when using log-likelihood, the logarithm and the exponent just cancel each other out), but would it be possible to use something like a Cauchy distribution?

I feel like you could be a bit perverse and choose a rectangle distribution, though you'll just have the issue that your parameters $\beta$ might not be uniquely defined.

As for the link function, I can think of one to three required properties:

  • The function's range must cover the domain of the data.
  • The function must be invertible (maybe? Or could you combine this with something like MARS?).
  • The function should be continuous (seems like you'd want this, but I don't know why).

Are there any other important things we need? Integrability? Differentiability seems like it would be handy but I don't know if it's necessary.

$\endgroup$
1
  • $\begingroup$ "Differentiability seems like it would be handy" -- certainly, since Fisher scoring uses it, but you can maximize likelihood without that. $\endgroup$
    – Glen_b
    Commented Nov 19, 2015 at 0:33

1 Answer 1

1
$\begingroup$

You're right that we often over-rely on exponential distributions to formulate GLMs. A link function is only half of a GLM. Also specified is a variance structure. For exponential families, the variance and link function have a mathematical relationship which gives a very simple estimating equation. However, there is often very good reason to step beyond the bounds of "regular likelihoods" and look to GLMs as estimating a meaningful relationship.

An example of that is relative risk regression which uses a binomial variance structure but a log link to compare the relative rates of an outcome. Here, unlike logistic regression, an estimated rate ratio of 2 can be interpreted as "twice as likely to experience an outcome of interest" (an Odds ratio of 2 has no such interpretation).

I think the only consideration would be that the estimating equation (whose solution produces our estimate $\beta).

$$S(\beta) = D^TV^{-1} (Y - g(X\beta))$$

Should be asymptotically linear at it's root. I think this is required to ensure that the estimated variance is in some sense correct. Choosing $g^{-1}$ differentiable and invertible helps to ensure this, but it is not a necessary condition.

The paper by Fahrmeir discusses this.

You can, of course, get a broader class of estimators from minimax estimation!

$\endgroup$
1
  • $\begingroup$ Would you please explain asymptotically linear? $\endgroup$
    – Anzel
    Commented Nov 20, 2015 at 18:46

Your Answer

By clicking “Post Your Answer”, you agree to our terms of service and acknowledge you have read our privacy policy.

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.