The classical treatment of statistical inference relies on the assumption that that a correctly specified statistical is used exists. That is, the distribution $\mathbb{P}^*(Y)$ that generated the observed data $y$ is part of the statistical model $\mathcal{M}$: $$\mathbb{P}^*(Y) \in \mathcal{M}=\{\mathbb{P}_\theta(Y) :\theta \in \Theta\}$$ However, in most situations we cannot assume that this is really true. I wonder what happens with statistical inference procedures if we drop the correctly specified assumption.
I have found some work by White 1982 on ML-estimates under misspecification. In it is argued that the maximum likelihood estimator is a consistent estimator for the distribution $$\mathbb{P}_{\theta_1}=\arg \min_{\mathbb{P}_\theta \in \mathcal{M}} KL(\mathbb{P}^*,\mathbb{P}_\theta)$$ that minimizes the KL-divergence out of all distributions within the statistical model and the true distribution $\mathbb{P}^*$.
What happens to confidence set estimators? Lets recapitulate confidence set estimators. Let $\delta:\Omega_Y \rightarrow 2^\Theta$ be a set estimator, where $\Omega_Y$ is the sample space and $2^\Theta$ the power set over the parameter space $\Theta$. What we would like to know is the probability of the event that the sets produced by $\delta$ include the true distribution $\mathbb{P}^*$, that is $$\mathbb{P}^*(\mathbb{P}^* \in \{P_\theta : \theta \in \delta(Y)\}):=A.$$
However, we of course don't know the true distribution $\mathbb{P}^*$. The correctly specified assumption tells us that $\mathbb{P}^* \in \mathcal{M}$. However, we still don't know which distribution of the model it is. But, $$\inf_{\theta \in \Theta} \mathbb{P}_\theta(\theta \in \delta(Y)):=B$$ is a lower bound for the probability $A$. Equation $B$ is the classical defintion of the confidence level for a confidence set estimator.
If we drop the correctly specified assumption, $B$ is not necessarily a lower bound for $A$, the term that we are actually interested in, anymore. Indeed, if we assume that the model is misspecied, which is arguably the case for most realistic situations, $A$ is 0, because the true distribution $P^*$ is not contained within the statistical model $\mathcal{M}$.
From another perspective one could think about what $B$ relates to when the model is misspecified. This a more specific question. Does $B$ still have a meaning, if the model is misspecified. If not, why are we even bothering with parametric statistics?
I guess White 1982 contains some results on these issues. Unluckily, my lack of mathematical background hinders me from understanding much that is written there.