The following lemma can be found in Hayashi's Econometrics:
Lemma 2.1 (convergence in distribution and in moments): Let $\alpha_{sn}$ be the $s$-th moment of $z_{n}$, and $\lim_{n\to\infty}\alpha_{sn}=\alpha_{s}$ where $\alpha_{s}$ is finite (i.e., a real number). Then:
"$z_{n} \to_{d} z$" $\implies$ "$\alpha_{s}$ is the $s$-th moment of $z$."
Thus, for example, if the variance of a sequence of random variables converging in distribution converges to some finite number, then that number is the variance of the limiting distribution
As far as I understand, there are no additional assumptions on $z_{n}$ that can be inferred from the context. Now consider a sequence of random variables defined by $z_{n} = n\mathbb{1}_{[0,\frac{1}{n}]}$ in uniform probability measure on $[0,1]$.
Then $z_{n} \to_{d} 0$, but $(\forall n)\ E(z_{n}) = 1 \to 1 \neq 0 = E(0)$.
If I am reading the above lemma correctly, $\{z_n\}$ provides a counterexample.
Question: Is the lemma false? Is there a related result that specifies general conditions under which convergence in distribution implies convergence in moments?