Consider the following setup with known standard deviation $\sigma$: \begin{align} X|\theta &\sim N(\theta,\sigma^2)\\ \theta &\sim N(\mu_0,\sigma_0^2) \end{align}
and $(\mu_n,\sigma_n^2)$ is the belief after $n$ samples.
Can we say that the posterior mean $\mu_n$ is always finite?
The updating equation seems to suggest that it can be infinite only if the average of samples taken is $\infty$, which has the probability of zero under normal distribution. So, it should be finite. Does it sound right?
Or should I say $\mu_n$ is finite almost surely (since as $x$ goes to infinity, the probability goes to zero, but we can not say the probability of infinity is zero)?