The simplest form of the information theoretic CLT is the following:
Let $X_1, X_2,\dots$ be iid with mean $0$ and variance $1$. Let $f_n$ be the density of the normalized sum $\frac{\sum_{i=1}^n X_i}{\sqrt{n}}$ and $\phi$ be the standard Gaussian density. Then the information theoretic CLT states that, if $D(f_n\|\phi)=\int f_n \log(f_n/\phi) dx$ is finite for some $n$, then $D(f_n\|\phi)\to 0$ as $n\to \infty$.
Certainly this convergence, in a sense, is "stronger" than the well establised convergences in the literature, convergence in distribution and convergence in $L_1$-metric, thanks to Pinsker's inequality $\left(\int |f_n-\phi|\right)^2\le 2\cdot \int f_n \log(f_n/\phi)$. That is, convergence in KL-divergence implies convergence in distribution and convergence in $L_1$ distance.
I would like to know two things.
What is so great about the result $D(f_n\|\phi)\to 0$?
Is it just because of the reason stated in the third paragraph we say convergence in KL-divergence (i.e., $D(f_n\|\phi)\to 0$) is stronger?
NB: I asked this question sometime ago in math.stackexchange where I didn't get any answer.