I thought up this method to make data stationary for time series modeling with Arima. Does this method make any sense or is it completely flawed?
For stationary data we need a constant mean and variance.
Step 1: Partition the data into n sets, and calculate the mean and variance on each the n partitions. New mean and variance equals the mean and variance of the first partition.
Step 2: Transform the mean of each partition by subtracting or adding a constant to the set of points so that the new mean will equal the mean of partition 1.
Step 3: Find a scaling factor by setting the variance of the first partition equal to the variance of the second partition. Next, multiply each data point in the second partition by that scaling factor. This should set the variance of partition two to equal partition one.
Step 4: Fit Arima to this transformed data, forecast one time step, and perform the inverse operation of the last partition onto the forecasted value.
If I do this transform on every partition, the mean and variance will all be the same as the first partition. If the time step is small, the transform should be approximatly valid for the new predicted value.
Would this approximation be valid/converge to the true solution as data points and partitions increase, and the time step decreases?
If you think it's valid, why? Why Wouldn't the transform mess up the Arima fit? If not valid, why not? Why does this transform mess up the Arima fit? By how much will this transformation mess up the fit?
Thanks!