Recently, I read this web page which explains the Copula package in R.
A question occurred to me. Consider a data set $D_{n\times d}$ which $n$ is the number of samples and $d$ is the number of RVs.
we want to find the joint distribution of these $d$ RVs by Gaussian copula.
for estimating the $\Sigma$ in Gaussian Copula, in the first step, it requires that we transform the dataset into hypercube $[0,1]^d$ with uniform distribution for each RV.
on the other hand, for obtaining the uniformly distributed data, we need to know the CDF of each RV. And also by using the integral transform theorem we know that for every RV we have: $F_X(X) \sim U(0,1)$
i.e. $F_1(x_1),\dots, F_d(x_d)$ must be known. However, they are not given to us with the data set and they are unknown for us.
In the Copula package, it uses pobs()
to transform the data in the unit hypercube and then it estimates $\Sigma$ by maximum likelihood.
Now my question,
How pobs
does guarantee that correlation between the transformed data used by pobs
would be as similar as the correlation matrix of the transformed data used by known CDFs?(Consider for comparison between these two cases, we know the CDFs)
Or in other words,
Is it ok that we estimate $\Sigma$ without any knowledge about the prior CDFs (only using the pobs
)? or at first, we should consider some prior CDFs for the dataset and then transform them into hypercube by $F_X(X) \sim U(0,1)$ and finally estimate $\Sigma$.
I would appreciate any clear explanation for these two cases.