1
$\begingroup$

In trying to solve a bigger applied problem, I found myself facing the following.

Let $X$, $Y$ and $Z$ be three independent random variables, each coming from an unknown distribution, and each with $1...n$ realizations $x \in X, y \in Y, z \in Z$ . I know that:

  • they all have the same number $n$ of sampled realizations.
  • they all have the same support, i.e. $x,y,z \in [a,b]$, where $a,b \in \mathbb{R^{\geq0}}$ and $b>a$.

So, let's say we draw $n$ samples from each variable, so we get $n$ realizations from each of the three variables (where each draw is indexed by $i$ such that $i \in 1...n$). How can I show that as $n$ increases, it becomes more likely that $x_i + y_i > z_i$ for at least one draw $i$? If extra assumptions are needed, which would be the minimal assumptions required?

$\endgroup$
6
  • $\begingroup$ do X, Y and Z have the same distribution? If they don't, your claim is not generally true. $\endgroup$
    – carlo
    Commented Nov 11, 2019 at 22:54
  • $\begingroup$ @carlo Ops, I see. I edited the question to ask for showing that as $n$ increases, at it increases the probability that for at least one draw from the variables, it will be true. $\endgroup$
    – ZXiu
    Commented Nov 11, 2019 at 23:03
  • $\begingroup$ ok. pay attention to sign, in any case. for b negative that can't be true $\endgroup$
    – carlo
    Commented Nov 11, 2019 at 23:07
  • 1
    $\begingroup$ Your language is still ambiguous. You say "three i.i.d. random variables of unknown distributions." Do you mean that you have three distributions for $X,Y,Z$ and you're drawing iid samples from each? $\endgroup$
    – Alex R.
    Commented Nov 11, 2019 at 23:19
  • 1
    $\begingroup$ @AlexR. I mean exactly that each of those variables follows one distribution, possibly different from each other. The 3 variables are independent from each other. I always draw samples from the 3, but again, the sampled realizations are independent form each other. $\endgroup$
    – ZXiu
    Commented Nov 11, 2019 at 23:52

1 Answer 1

1
$\begingroup$

Given a sequence of independent events $A_i$ each of them has probability $p > 0$, the probability of having at least one event $A_i$ happening for $i \le n$, is $1-(1-p)^n$ which is always increasing and converges to $1$. So you only have to prove that $P(X+Y > Z) > 0$.

Your assumptions about $X, Y$ and $Z$ are a bit unclear, but if there is a couple of values $x, y$ for which:

$$P(X > x) > 0,\\ P(Y>y) > 0,\\P(Z < x+y) > 0$$

then, there is a probability greater than 0 that $X+Y >Z$, and what you want to prove is proven already.

$\endgroup$
2
  • 2
    $\begingroup$ What do you mean by those three probabilities being greater than 1? $\endgroup$
    – ZXiu
    Commented Nov 12, 2019 at 0:38
  • $\begingroup$ sorry, I meant greater than 0. just corrected it $\endgroup$
    – carlo
    Commented Nov 12, 2019 at 3:17

Your Answer

By clicking “Post Your Answer”, you agree to our terms of service and acknowledge you have read our privacy policy.

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.