From this paper, https://arxiv.org/pdf/1806.09460.pdf, page 9
I am confused by the line "sample $z_k \sim p(z;\theta_k)$"
It seems that $z_k$ is a random variable, as explained here Why are probability distributions denoted with a tilde?.
However, it was then plugged into the next line
$$\vartheta_{k+1} = \vartheta_k + \alpha_k R(z_k) \nabla_\vartheta\log(p(z_k;\vartheta_k))$$
which produces a vector $\vartheta_{k+1}$, which is a deterministic parameter. This can only occur if $z_k$ is a number (not a random variable).
Is there some abuse of notation going-on here or is this correct?
Is there a better way of writing this algorithm?