Since I've heard about proper scoring rules for binary classification like the Brier score or Log Loss, I am more and more convinced that they are drastically underrepresented in practice in favor of measures like accurary, ROC AUC or F1. As I want to drive forward a shift to proper scoring rules for model comparison in my organization, there is one common argument that I cannot fully answer:
If there is extreme class imbalance (e.g. 5 positive cases vs 1,000 negative cases), how does the Brier score ensure that we select the model that gives us the best performance regarding high probability forecasts for the 5 positive cases? As we do not care if the negative cases have predictions near 0 or 0.5 as long as they are relatively lower than those for the positive classes.
I have two possible answers available right now but would love to hear expert opinions on this topic:
1."The Brier score as a proper scoring rule gives rare events the appropriate weight that they should have on the performance evaluation. Discriminative power can further be examined with ROC AUC."
This follows the logic of Frank Harrell's comment to a related question: "Forecasts of rare events have the "right" effect on the mean, i.e., mean predicted probability of the event = overall proportion of events. The Brier score works no matter what the prevalence of events." As he further suggests there, one could supplement the Brier score with ROC AUC to examine to which extent the desired relative ranking of positive over negative cases was achieved.
2."We can use stratified Brier score to equally weight the forecast performance regarding each class."
This follows the logic of this papers argumentation: "Averaging the Brier score of all the classes gives the stratified Brier score. The stratified Brier score is more appropriate when there is class imbalance since it gives equal importance to all the classes and thus allows any miscalibration of the minority classes to be spotted.". I am not sure whether the loss of the strictly proper scoring rule property is worth the heavier weighting of the minority class of interest and whether there is a statistical sound foundation to use this somehow arbitrary way of reweighting ("If we follow this approach, what stops us from going further and weighting the minority class 2, 17, or 100 times as much as the other class?").