I have the following optimization (and standarised) problem:
$$minimize\ -(x\ ln(x)\ +\ y\ ln(y))$$ $$subject\ to\ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ x+y-1<=0$$ $$\ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ -x,\ -y <= 0$$
I have calculated the Lagrange's equation as:
$$L(x,y,\lambda_1,\lambda_2,\lambda_3)=-(x\ ln(x)+y\ ln(y))+\lambda_1(x+y-1)-\lambda_2 x-\lambda_3 y$$
And I have the following Karush–Kuhn–Tucker conditions:
$$\delta_xL=-ln(x)-1+\lambda_1-\lambda_2=0$$ $$\delta_yL=-ln(y)-1+\lambda_1-\lambda_3=0$$ $$\lambda_1(x+y-1)=0$$ $$\lambda_2x=0$$ $$\lambda_3y=0$$ $$x, y>=0$$ $$\lambda_1,\lambda_2,\lambda_3>=0$$
The question is the following: When I suppose, for example, that $\lambda_1=0,\ \lambda_2>0$ and $\lambda_3>0$, then by the above equations, we can assum that $x=0$ and $y=0$. So the point to be evaluated will be the $(0, 0)$. Is this point a local minimum of the given problem? I mean, when $x=0$ (or $y=0$), the first (or second) condition can't be calculated because the $ln(0)$ does not exist, so, in consequence, the point $(0,0)$ is not an candidate one, even if we see that it fixes the current optimization problem, becase $x\ ln(x)$ is 0.
Is this reasoning correct? Could you help me to solve this issue?
The same reasoning could be applied for the points $(0,1)$ and $(1,0)$?
Thanks!