Let $y_i \sim \mathcal{N}(\mu,\sigma^2), \; i = 1,\ldots,n$ and $\bar{y} = \frac{1}{n} \sum_{i=1}^n y_i$, such that $n \bar{y} = y_1 + \ldots + y_n$.
Then, we want to know what the expectation of $(n \bar{y})^4$ is.
As an inspiration, here's my derivation of the expectation $(n \bar{y})^2$:
$$ \begin{split} \left\langle (n \bar{y})^2 \right\rangle &= \left\langle (y_1 + \ldots + y_n) (y_1 + \ldots + y_n) \right\rangle \\ &= \left\langle \left( \sum_{i=1}^n y_i \right) \left( \sum_{j=1}^n y_j \right) \right\rangle \\ &= \left\langle \sum_{i=1}^n \sum_{j=1}^n y_i y_j \right\rangle \\ &= \left\langle n y_i^2 + (n^2-n) y_i y_j \right\rangle \\ &= n (\mu^2 + \sigma^2) + (n^2-n) (\mu \cdot \mu) \\ &= n (\mu^2 + \sigma^2) + (n^2-n) \mu^2 \\ &= n^2 \mu^2 + n \sigma^2 \end{split} $$
However, the expectation $(n \bar{y})^4$ is not as easy, because the combinatorics are much more complicated (products of different numbers of independent or non-independent random variables).