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Let $X$ be a continuous random variable with pdf $f(x)$. Assume that

  • $f(x) \geq 0$, for all $x > 0$, so $X$ is a positive random variable,
  • $f(\infty) > 0$, i.e. $X$ has a strictly positive density of probability at infinity,
  • $\mathbb{E}[X | X < \infty] = k < \infty$.

Then $\mathbb{E}[X]$ is finite or infinite ?

Is it wrong to calculate \begin{equation} \begin{aligned} \mathbb{E}[X] &= \mathbb{E}[X | X < \infty ] P(X < \infty) + \mathbb{E}[X |X = \infty] P(X = \infty) \\ &= \lim_{dx \rightarrow 0} k (1-f(\infty) dx) + \infty f(\infty) dx \\ &= \infty \end{aligned} \end{equation} ?

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    $\begingroup$ Are you sure the $pdf$ even integrates to $1?$ $\endgroup$
    – Dave
    Commented Apr 19, 2022 at 9:28
  • $\begingroup$ I think yes. What would prevent it ? Take for instance $X = | Z^{-1} |$, where $Z$ is a Normal$(0,1)$ random variable. $\endgroup$
    – Celi
    Commented Apr 19, 2022 at 10:33
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    $\begingroup$ There cannot be a density at infinity: it would be a probability mass. By the rules of working in the extended reals, the expectation is either infinite or undefined. $\endgroup$
    – whuber
    Commented Apr 19, 2022 at 14:47
  • $\begingroup$ Can you elaborate please ? If I define $X = 1/Z$ with $Z$ having a strictly positive density of probability at $0$, wouldn't $X$ have a strictly positive density of probability at $\infty$ ? $\endgroup$
    – Celi
    Commented Apr 19, 2022 at 15:35
  • $\begingroup$ The density of the inverse of a (half) Normal variate, $X=|Z|^{-1}$, is zero at infinity (thanks to the Jacobian). $\endgroup$
    – Xi'an
    Commented Jun 22, 2023 at 18:47

1 Answer 1

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This is a case where you are dealing with a non-negative random variable on the extended real numbers.$^\dagger$ In this case the expected value is:

$$\mathbb{E}(X) = \int \limits_0^\infty x f(x) dx + \infty \cdot f(\infty),$$

with the convention that $\infty \cdot 0 = 0$ in the last term. This can be written without use of any convention for indeterminate forms as:

$$\mathbb{E}(X) = \begin{cases} \int \limits_0^\infty x f(x) dx & & & \text{if } f(\infty) = 0, \\[6pt] \infty & & & \text{if } f(\infty) > 0. \\[6pt] \end{cases}$$

As you can see, given your conditions, the expected value of the random variable is infinite. Your attempted demonstration of this is wrong, in part owing to your incorrect use of differential terms without an integral.


$^\dagger$ The density would typically be taken with respect to the dominating measure composed of Lebesgue measure on the reals, plus counting measure on $\pm \infty$. We will assume this form of density throughout the analysis.

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  • $\begingroup$ Ok thank you very much. I find this curious. Then doesn't it make many results of probability theory wrong ? For instance, the standard-deviation of iid Normal random variables has a strictly positive density at $0$. Hence the ratio between the average of that sample and its standard-deviation (i.e. a student's t random variable) has a strictly positive density at $\infty$. $\endgroup$
    – Celi
    Commented Apr 19, 2022 at 11:43
  • $\begingroup$ @Celi: $\lim_{x\to \infty} f_t(x)=0$, where $f_t(x)$ is the PDF of Student's T-Distribution (for any degree of freedom). Hence it has a density of $0$ at $\infty$. Just like the normal distribution. $\endgroup$
    – PaulG
    Commented Apr 19, 2022 at 13:49
  • $\begingroup$ @Celi: To understand this aspect of probability theory, you may need to learn a bit more about probability density results for continuous random variables. In the case you mention, the sample standard deviation of IID normal RVs has zero density at the value zero (specifically, it follows a scaled chi distribution). $\endgroup$
    – Ben
    Commented Apr 29, 2022 at 5:24
  • $\begingroup$ @Ben Thanks for your answer. Since the normals are independent, there is a strictly positive density that they are all equal, hence that the sample std equals 0. I really don't see how your statement can be true. Couldn't it be that you are wrong ? $\endgroup$
    – Celi
    Commented Apr 30, 2022 at 7:46
  • $\begingroup$ Continuous densities can be altered at a single point without changing their essential nature, though this may break continuity of the density function, so we usually use a "canonical" version that is continuous. In the case you give, the sample standard deviation follows a scaled chi distribution, in which the density is zero at the value zero (unless you break continuity of the density function). I can see why the argument you give seems intuitive, but it is not a valid logical implication in probability theory --- it is not quite how densities of transformations of random variables work. $\endgroup$
    – Ben
    Commented Apr 30, 2022 at 12:24

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