I have $X_1,\dots,X_n,X_{n+1}\overset{iid}{\sim}F_X(x)$, where $F_X$ has a finite mean $\mu$ and variance $\sigma^2$.
If I calculate $\bar X_n = \dfrac{1}{n}\sum_{i=1}^n$ and $S^2_n = \dfrac{1}{n-1}\sum_{i=1}^n\left(x_i - \bar x_n\right)^2$ based on the first $n$ observations, I am able to use those, along with $n$ and $X_{n+1}$, to calculate $S^2_{n+1} = \dfrac{1}{(n+1)-1}\sum_{i=1}^{n+1}\left(x_i - \bar x_n\right)^2$ based on all $n+1$ observations.
Does this make $(\bar X_n, S^2_n, n, X_{n+1})$ a sufficient statistic for $\sigma^2?$ If not, is my function of those four values a sufficient statistic for $\sigma^2?$
Intuitively, I say this should be the case, since I have as much information to estimate $\sigma^2$ by having $(\bar X_n, S^2_n, n, X_{n+1})$ as I do from having all of the $X_i$ values, but I struggle to formally prove this or even begin to prove it.