0
$\begingroup$

From the paper "Campbell and Broderick (2019), Automated Scalable Bayesian Inference via Hilbert Coresets":

We want to create a Bayesian Coreset which is a small weighted subset of our full data, whose weighted log-likelihood approximates the full data log-likelihood. Given $N$ observations, the log-likelihood is

$$ L(\theta) = \sum_{n=1}^{N}L_n \left(\theta \right) $$

where

$$ L_n\left(\theta\right) $$

is the log-likelihood of observation $n$.

The aim of the Bayesian coresets framework is to find a set of nonnegative weights $w:=\left(w_n\right)_{n=1}^{N}$, a small number of which are nonzero, such that the weighted log-likelihood

$$ L(w,\theta) := \sum_{n=1}^{N} w_nL_n\left(\theta\right) \textrm{ satisfies } \lvert L\left(w,\theta\right) - L\left(\theta\right)\rvert \leq \epsilon \lvert L\left(\theta\right)\rvert, \forall \theta \in \Theta $$

To construct a Bayesian coreset we first compute the sensitivity $\sigma_n$ of each data point,

$$ \sigma_n := sup_{\theta\in\Theta}\lvert \frac{L_n\left(\theta\right)}{L\left(\theta\right)} \rvert $$

and then subsample the data set by taking $M$ independent draws with probability proportional to $\sigma_n$ (resulting in a coreset of size $\leq M$) via

$$ \sigma := \sum_{n=1}^{N} \sigma_n $$

$$ \left(M_1,\cdot \cdot \cdot, M_N \right) \sim Multi \left(M,\left( \frac{\sigma_n}{\sigma}\right)_{n=1}^{N} \right) $$

$$ w_n = \frac{\sigma}{\sigma_n} \frac{M_n}{M} $$

Question

Is the "Multi" distribution, a Multinomial distribution with $M$ tries and $N$ possible outcomes for each try? That would mean that an observation could appear multiple times in our subset, is this correct? Also, I don't understand how we came up with $w_n$ as the weights. I observed that this weight is indeed larger for observations which would contribute more to the total maximized log-likelihood ($\sup L_n\left(\theta\right)$ is larger) but what is the thought process behind forming this weight? As I understand it, $\frac{M_n}{M}$ is the proportional frequency of observation $n$ in our subset. Also, $\frac{\sigma}{\sigma_n}$ is the inverse of the proportion of the "contribution" of observation $n$ in the total maximized log-likelihood.

$\endgroup$
2
  • $\begingroup$ Yes this is a Multinomial sample of size $N$ and $M_i>1$ is a possibility. $\endgroup$
    – Xi'an
    Commented Jun 11, 2022 at 8:04
  • $\begingroup$ @Xi'an Thank you. $\endgroup$
    – Fib
    Commented Jun 11, 2022 at 8:59

0

Your Answer

By clicking “Post Your Answer”, you agree to our terms of service and acknowledge you have read our privacy policy.

Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.