2
$\begingroup$

If $X$ is an $n\times p$ matrix where each row is iid multivariate normal, then $X^TX$ has a Wishart distribution.

  1. What is known about the limiting distribution of $X^TX$ for large $n$ when the rows of $X$ are from some general multivariate distribution not necessarily normal?

  2. Is anything known about the distribution of the term $\mathbf{x}_0^T (X^TX)^{-1}\mathbf{x}_0$, where $\mathbf{x}_0\in\mathbb{R}^p$?

I'm not an expert in random matrix theory, but I would guess the assumption of normality in the definition on Wishart distribution isn't crucial perhaps due to some kind of central limit theorem. So Question 1 is really asking if we don't make the normality assumption, does $X^TX$ converge to some limiting distribution for large $n$? And that being a Wishart?

For question 2, it would seem that the distribution term $\mathbf{x}_0^T (X^TX)^{-1}\mathbb{x}_0$ should be very important since it appears in the variance of the predicted value in a linear regression when the regressors are assume to be random. But I can't find much about its distribution. The Wikipedia page on the inverse Wishart distribution shows a related expression with this on the denominator is chi-squared.

If anyone can point me to what is known about these questions even if it is not exactly what is asked, that would be helpful.

$\endgroup$

2 Answers 2

0
$\begingroup$

This isn't a complete answer, but I will give you a starting point to try to tackle part 2.

First notice that $\mathbf{x}_0^T (X^TX)^{-1}\mathbf{x}_0$ is a change of variables $\nu:\mathbb{R}^{n \times p} \mapsto \mathbb{R}$ which you can even more simply think of as mapping $V : \mathbb{R}^k \mapsto \mathbb{R}$ via a pairing function on the index set of the matrix $(X^TX)^{-1}$.

This vector-to-scalar transformation will have a joint density $f_{Y, X}(y, \vec{x}) = F_{X}(\vec{x}) \delta (y - V(\vec{x}))$ where $\delta$ is the Dirac delta distribution. And following this post, integrate the joint density with respect to $d\vec{x}$.

$\endgroup$
0
$\begingroup$

$X^T X \to \infty$ as $n\to\infty$. But $X^T X / n \to \mathbb E (X_1^TX_1)$ almost surely by the Strong Law of Large numbers providing that the rows of $X$ are iid $p$-row vectors $X_i$ with $\mathbb E |X_i| <\infty$.

Note that $X^T X = \sum_{i=1}^n X_i^T X_i$.

$\endgroup$

Your Answer

By clicking “Post Your Answer”, you agree to our terms of service and acknowledge you have read our privacy policy.

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.