Firstly, you've got to be careful when you write something like
$$ X_1, \ldots, X_n \sim \mathrm{Exp}(\lambda) $$
because there are two common parameterisations of the Exponential distribution. In the example you linked to, $\lambda$ is the scale ("Where $\lambda$ is the population mean time between accidents...", i.e. $\mathbb{E}(X_1)=\lambda$), whereas in the other answer posted to your question $\lambda$ is assumed to be the rate (so $\mathbb{E}(X_1)=1/\lambda$). The same error appears in the answer to the linked question. The correct likelihood for the scale parameterisation is
$$ L(\lambda;\underline{x}) = \prod_{i=1}^n f_{X_i}(x_i;\lambda) =
\prod_{i=1}^n \frac{1}{\lambda}e^{-x_i/\lambda} =
\lambda^{-n} e^{-n\bar{x}/\lambda}
$$
and the MLE is $\hat{\lambda}=\bar{X}$, i.e. we use the sample mean to estimate the population mean.
Secondly, the likelihood-ratio test is suitable when we're testing hypotheses of the form $H_0: \, \theta \in \Theta_0$ versus $H_1: \, \theta \in \Theta_0^c$, the complement of $\Theta_0$. In your example, if we want $H_1: \, \lambda < 4$, then we have to take $H_0: \, \lambda \geq 4$.
In the denominator of $\Lambda(x)$ you're maximising the likelihood over the whole of $\Theta$, so the estimator is $\hat{\lambda}=\bar{X}$ (the unconstrained MLE).
Now consider the numerator of $\Lambda(x)$. You want to maximise the likelihood over $\Theta_{H_0}$ to obtain $\hat\lambda_0$ (the constrained MLE). There are two cases:
If it so happens that $\bar{x} \geq 4$, the constrained and the unconstrained MLE are the same, so $\Lambda(x)=1$. We clearly don't want to reject $H_0$, as there is no evidence in favour of $H_1$.
If $\bar{x} < 4$, there is some evidence in favour of $H_1$. The constrained MLE is then $\hat{\lambda}_0=4$ (can you see why?), so we get
$$ \Lambda(x) = \frac{\hat\lambda_0^{-n} e^{- n \bar{x}/\hat\lambda_0}}{\hat\lambda^{-n} e^{- n \bar{x}/\hat\lambda}}
= \frac{4^{-n} e^{- n \bar{x}/4}}{\bar{x}^{-n} e^{- n \bar{x}/\bar{x}}}
\propto \bar{x}^n e^{-n\bar{x}/4}
$$
We can easily verify that this is a increasing function of $\bar{x}$ when $\bar{x}<4$ (check the derivative). We reject $H_0$ when $\Lambda(x)$ is small, which corresponds to low values of $\bar{x}$.
If we wanted to test $H_0: \, \lambda \leq 4$ versus $H_1: \, \lambda > 4$, the calculations are very similar. We care about the case where $\bar{x}>4 $, and you can check that the likelihood ratio is a decreasing function of $\bar{x}$ in this region, i.e. we reject $H_0$ for high values of $\bar{x}$.
Finally, testing $H_0: \, \lambda = 4$ versus $H_1: \, \lambda \neq 4$ is a little trickier, because $\Lambda(x)$ is no longer monotonic in $\bar{x}$ (or any other function of the sample), i.e. we want to reject $H_0$ for very high or very low values of $\bar{x}$. We would take $-2\log\Lambda(x)$ and use the fact that this is approximately Chi-square distributed under $H_0$.