Background
I am interested in the distribution of
$$\theta_0=1-\prod_{i=1}^n(1-\theta_i)$$
where the $\theta_{i>0}$ are iid beta random variates:
$$\theta_{i>0}\sim\text{Beta}(\alpha,\beta)$$
In my case $\beta\gg1\gg\alpha$ and $n\gg1$, so I used the following transformation:
$$\phi_i=-\ln(1-\theta_i)\\\theta_i=1-e^{-\phi_i}\\d\theta_i=e^{-\phi_i}\\p(\phi_i)\propto(1-e^{-\phi_{i}})^{\alpha-1}e^{-\phi_{i}\beta}\qquad\text{(1)}$$
With $\beta\gg\alpha$, $\theta_i$ and $\phi_i$ tend to be very small, so
$$1-e^{-\phi_i}\approx\phi_i$$
Substituting into (1) gives:
$$p(\phi_i)\hspace{1mm}\dot\propto\hspace{1mm}\phi_i^{\alpha-1}e^{-\phi_i\beta}$$
Or
$$\phi_i\hspace{1mm}\dot\sim\hspace{1mm}\text{Gamma}(\alpha,\beta)$$
Define $\phi_0$:
$$\phi_0\equiv\sum_{i=1}^n\phi_i$$
Using the properties of the gamma distribution:
$$\phi_0\hspace{1mm}\dot\sim\hspace{1mm}\text{Gamma}(n\alpha,\beta)$$
Finally,
$$\theta_0=1-e^{-\phi_0}$$
(I can further improve the approximation through moment matching to get slightly different values of $\alpha$ and $\beta$ to use in the gamma distribution, but this doesn't affect the question below.)
Question
What would be a good way to quantifiably demonstrate how well the above approximation works for varying values of $\alpha$, $\beta$, and $n$?
For a single set of values, I can use simulation, e.g.,
set.seed(214462480)
alpha <- 2e-3
beta <- 1001
n <- 1e3
theta0.sim1 <- -expm1(replicate(1e5, sum(log1p(-rbeta(n, alpha, beta)))))
theta0.sim2 <- -expm1(-rgamma(1e5, n*alpha, beta))
ks.test(theta0.sim1, theta0.sim2)$p.value
#> [1] 0.5396774
And the ecdf
lines are right on top of each other.
However, simulation in this manner is slow and defeats the purpose of the approximation. $\alpha$ and $\beta$ are sampled from a joint posterior, so I require a large number of samples of $\theta_0$, each with varying $\alpha$ and $\beta$ parameters. Furthermore, this will be applied to a number of problems, so $n$ and the distributions of $\alpha$ and $\beta$ can also vary.