2
$\begingroup$

Suppose we have the following heteroskedastic trending regression model: $$y_i=bi+a_i u_i$$ for some sequence of non-zero constants $a_i$ and $u_i$ an i.i.d. sequence of mean 0 and variance 1 random variables. I want to find the asymptotic distributions of the OLS and unfeasible WLS estimators and compare their efficiency.

To do this, I calculate the normalisation constants for both asymptotic distributions. I use the Lindeberg-Feller CLT and assume the relevant Grenander conditions hold. I calculate that for $\hat{b}_{OLS}$ and $\hat{b}_{WLS}$, $$\left(\sum_{i=1}^n i^2\right)\left(\sum_{i=1}^n a_i^2 i^2\right)^{-1/2}(\hat{b}_{OLS}-b)\xrightarrow{d} N(0,1)$$ $$\left(\sum_{i=1}^n i^2\right)\left(\sum_{i=1}^n \frac{i^2}{a_i^2} \right)^{-1/2}(\hat{b}_{WLS}-b)\xrightarrow{d} N(0,1)$$

However, I think this must be incorrect as I cannot see why the WLS is necessarily more efficient than the OLS estimator. I think there are cases when either normalisation is bigger, implying that either estimator could be efficient in different cases. For example, I think these imply that if $a_i>1$ for all $i$ then the WLS is more efficient, but if $a_i<1$ for all $i$ then the OLS is more efficient.

Am I doing something wrong in my calculations? I expect the WLS to be more efficient but can't see where the error is coming into my work.

$\endgroup$
2
  • $\begingroup$ Don't know where your mistake is, but there is no need for normalization or asymptotics here. The finite sample variance of WLS is smaller than that of OLS, simply by the G-M theorem. That should be apparent as well by inspection of the function forms of the finite sample variances, and an application of some inequality like C-S. $\endgroup$ Commented Jan 4 at 19:19
  • $\begingroup$ @BigBendRegion Unfortunately, I was constrained in my approach as this is from a past paper with a few subparts which guide the answer. I did manage to adapt what you said to find the problem and get a solution. Thanks! $\endgroup$ Commented Jan 5 at 9:43

1 Answer 1

1
$\begingroup$

I realised I made a mistake in my derivation of the normalisation for the WLS estimator. The right asymptotic should be $$\left(\sum_{i=1}^n \frac{i^2}{a_i^2}\right)^{1/2}(\hat{b}_{WLS}-b)\xrightarrow{d} N(0,1)$$

Then, since our OLS asymptotic is $$\left(\sum_{i=1}^n i^2\right)\left(\sum_{i=1}^n i^2a_i^2\right)^{-1/2}(\hat{b}_{OLS}-b)\xrightarrow{d} N(0,1)$$

WLS is more efficient when $$\left(\sum_{i=1}^n \frac{i^2}{a_i^2}\right)^{1/2}\geq \left(\sum_{i=1}^n i^2\right)\left(\sum_{i=1}^n i^2a_i^2\right)^{-1/2}$$ And this always holds by the Cauchy-Schwarz inequality since it states that $$\left(\sum_{i=1}^n i^2 \right) \leq \left(\sum_{i=1}^n i^2a_i^2\right)^{1/2}\left(\sum_{i=1}^n \frac{i^2}{a_i^2}\right)^{1/2}$$ So this shows that the WLS estimator is more efficient whenever its Grenander condition is satisfied.

$\endgroup$

Your Answer

By clicking “Post Your Answer”, you agree to our terms of service and acknowledge you have read our privacy policy.

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.