Let $X$ represent the random variable for $\mu$ and $Y\sim\mathcal{N}(X,\sigma^2/2)$ the random variable for the final distribution. We will aim to demonstrate that $Y\sim\mathcal{N}(0,\sigma^2)$ when $X\sim \mathcal{N}(0,\sigma^2/2)$.
We begin by marginalizing the joint distribution.
\begin{align}
P(Y=y)&=\frac{1}{\sqrt{2\pi \sigma^2}}e^{-y^2/2\sigma^2}\\
&=\int_{-\infty}^\infty P(X=x,Y=y)dx\\
&=\int_{-\infty}^\infty P(Y=y\mid X=x)P(X=x)dx\\
&=\int_{-\infty}^\infty \frac{1}{\sqrt{\pi \sigma^2}}e^{-(y-x)^2/\sigma^2}P(X=x)dx
\end{align}
We will presume going forward $X$ will take on a normal distribution such that $X\sim\mathcal{N}(0,a\sigma^2)$, where $a$ is an unknown parameter. We will complete the square on $X$ to obtain the kernel for the normal distribution.
\begin{align}
P(Y=y)&=\frac{1}{\sqrt{2\pi \sigma^2}}e^{-y^2/2\sigma^2}\\
&=\int_{-\infty}^\infty \frac{1}{\sqrt{\pi \sigma^2}}e^{-(y-x)^2/\sigma^2}\frac{1}{\sqrt{2a\pi \sigma^2}}e^{-x^2/2a\sigma^2}dx\\
&=\int_{-\infty}^\infty \frac{1}{\sqrt{2a\pi^2 \sigma^4}}e^{(-y^2+2yx-x^2)/\sigma^2-x^2/2a\sigma^2}dx\\
&=\int_{-\infty}^\infty \frac{1}{\sqrt{2a\pi^2 \sigma^4}}e^{-x^2/(2a/2a+1)\sigma^2+2xy/\sigma^2-y^2/\sigma^2}dx\\
&=\int_{-\infty}^\infty \frac{1}{\sqrt{2a\pi^2 \sigma^4}}e^{-(x-2ay/(2a+1))^2/(2a/2a+1)\sigma^2-y^2/(2a+1)\sigma^2}dx\\
&=\frac{1}{\sqrt{(2a+1)\pi \sigma^2}}\int_{-\infty}^\infty \frac{\sqrt{2a+1}}{\sqrt{2a\pi\sigma^2}}e^{-(x-(a+1)y/a)^2/(2a/2a+1)\sigma^2-y^2/(2a+1)\sigma^2}dx\\
&=\frac{1}{\sqrt{(2a+1)\pi \sigma^2}}e^{-y^2/(2a+1)\sigma^2}
\end{align}
In the second to last line, the first part of the exponential was kernel to the normal distribution in $X$, so that what remains after integration is a normal distribution in $Y$. It is evident that we achieve the target distribution when $a=1/2$, thereby showing what we set out to do.