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I know that there are solutions on the internet, but I tried it myself first and wanted to ask whether my approach is valid.

Prove that the finiteness of $E[X]$ is equivalent to the finiteness of $E[|X|]$. Note that the finiteness of $E[X]$ means that $|E[X]| < \infty$, which implies proving $|E[X]| < \infty \iff E[|X|] < \infty$. Use the fact that $X^+ = X$ for $X \geq 0$ and $X^- = -X$ for $X < 0$.

I tried the following:

$$ X = X^+ - X^- \quad \text{and} \quad |X| = X^+ + X^- $$

$$ |E[X]| = |E[X^+] - E[X^-]| \leq |E[X^+]| + |E[X^-]| $$

$$ E[|X|] = E[X^+ + X^-] = E[X^+] + E[X^-] = |E[X^+] + E[X^-]| \leq |E[X^+]| + |E[X^-]| $$

Using the triangle inequality twice. Then I would argue $|E[X]| < \infty \iff E[|X|] < \infty$ follow, due to the fact that both have the same upper bound. But I am unsure whether the following step was valid: $E[X^+] + E[X^-] = |E[X^+] + E[X^-]|$. My thought was that both $X^+$ and $X^-$ must be positive by definition in the task.

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    $\begingroup$ The answer depends on how you define $E:$ specifically, whether you use the Lebesgue integral (which is standard--and the result is immediate because there's nothing to show) or something else, such as a Riemann integral--and the result is not necessarily true in that case. $\endgroup$
    – whuber
    Commented Oct 5 at 12:23
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    $\begingroup$ stats.stackexchange.com/a/609954/2958 has an example to think about: $\mathbb P\left(X=\frac{(-2)^n}{n} \right)=\frac1{2^n}$ with support on the positive integers. $\sum\limits_{n=1}^\infty \left|\frac{(-2)^n}{n}\right| \frac1{2^n}$ is infinite while $\sum\limits_{n=1}^\infty \frac{(-2)^n}{n} \frac1{2^n}$ is conditionally convergent to $-\log_e(2)$. Most people would say that the latter is not $\mathbb E[X]$ and so it should be no surprise that the strong law of large numbers does not apply in this case even if the weak law of large numbers does. $\endgroup$
    – Henry
    Commented Oct 6 at 8:59
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    $\begingroup$ @Henry Thank you for the example. The support of $X,$ though, includes negative and positive values: that's crucial. $\endgroup$
    – whuber
    Commented Oct 6 at 12:02
  • $\begingroup$ The example of @Henry seems to be a contradiction with my answer. It shows a sum that appears to be convergent. But the problem is that we can compute the limits of the sum that represents the expectation $$E[X] = \lim_{(a,b) \to (-\infty,\infty)} \sum_{\forall x: a \leq x \leq b} x \cdot P(X=x)$$ in different ways, and we will reach at different values. Just showing that one of them can reach a finite value is not enough (it is related to the reason that the Cauchy distribution has no expectation value). $\endgroup$ Commented Oct 6 at 13:22
  • $\begingroup$ @whuber You are correct. $n$ runs through the positive integers but $X$ can be any of $\{\frac{(-2)^n}{n}$ taking a variety of rational values positive and negative. I should not have used "support" in my comment. $\endgroup$
    – Henry
    Commented Oct 6 at 14:53

3 Answers 3

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To address your argument:

But I am unsure whether the following step was valid: $E[X^+] + E[X^-] = |E[X^+] + E[X^-]|$. My thought was that both $X^+$ and $X^-$ must be positive by definition in the task.

This is fine: both terms are nonnegative, so their sum is, so the absolute value doesn't change anything.

But just before that:

Then I would argue $|E[X]| < \infty \iff E[|X|] < \infty$ follow, due to the fact that both have the same upper bound.

This doesn't work. If the upper bound is infinite, then one of the quantities can be finite and the other infinite without violating anything so far established.

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Turning to a generalized setting, let $(\Omega, \boldsymbol{\mathfrak A}, \mu) $ be a measure space and let $f$ be an extended real-valued $\boldsymbol{\mathfrak A}$–measurable function on $D\in \boldsymbol{\mathfrak A}.$ Then

Result:$f$ is $\mu$–integrable on $D$ if and only if $|f|$ is.

Note if $f^+:=\max(f,0),~f^-:=-\min(f,0),$ $$\int_D |f|~\mathrm d\mu=\int_D (f^++f^-)~\mathrm d\mu=\int_D f^+~\mathrm d\mu+\int_D f^-~\mathrm d\mu<\infty,$$ which shows $|f|$ is $\mu$–integrable on $D.$

Conversely, assume $|f|$ is $\mu$–integrable on $D.$ Since $0\leq f^+, ~f^-\leq |f|, $ their respective integrals $\int_D f^\pm ~\mathrm d\mu\leq \int_D |f|~\mathrm d\mu<\infty, $ that is, $f$ is $\mu$–integrable on $D$ by its definition.

$\blacksquare$

--

Reference:

Real Analysis: Theory of Measure and Integration, J. Yeh, World Scientific, $2014, $ pp. $177-178.$

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  • $\begingroup$ While these are universally used in the same sense throughout the literature and OP seems to be aware of that, for future readers, I have added their definition @SextusEmpiricus. $\endgroup$ Commented Oct 6 at 11:42
  • $\begingroup$ "which shows $|f|$ is $\mu$-integrable on $D.$" I don't see directly how it follows that '$|f|$ is integrable if $f$ is integrable' from the mere equation that splits up the integral into two integrals with unsigned functions. $\endgroup$ Commented Oct 6 at 19:42
  • $\begingroup$ What do you infer when $f$ is $\mu$-integrable? $f$ is $\mu$-integrable on $D$ if and only if both $\int_D f^+~\mathrm d\mu$ and $\int_D f^-~\mathrm d\mu$ are finite. This follows from the definition of integrability of $f.$ $\endgroup$ Commented Oct 6 at 20:46
  • $\begingroup$ Ah, I can see how it follows from the definition, and it is more tautological than an inference. I was confused by the phrasing, "this shows", I thought I was missing something. $\endgroup$ Commented Oct 6 at 21:00
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In terms of Riemann integrals:

$$I(a) = \int_{-a}^0 x f(x) dx \\ J(b) = \int_{0}^b x f(x) dx $$

$$ \begin{array}{rccr} E[X] &=& \lim_{(a,b) \to (\infty,\infty)}& I(a)+J(b) \\ E[|X|] &=& \lim_{(a,b) \to (\infty,\infty)} &-I(a)+J(b) \end{array}$$

These double limits are finite if and only if the single limits $ \lim_{a \to \infty} I(a)$ and $ \lim_{b \to \infty} J(b)$ are finite. (And as a consequence $E[X]$ is finite iff $E[|X|]$ is finite)

Note that for the limit $E[X]$ to be finite, it implies that the single terms $I(a)$ and $J(b)$ converge when $a$ and $b$ go to infinity. This is because their sum is bounded for any sufficiently large values.

That is: If $E[X]$ is finite, then for every $\epsilon>0$ there is value $n$ such that for every sufficiently large values, $a>n$ and $b>n$ we have $E[X]-\epsilon \leq I(a) + J(b) \leq E[X]+ \epsilon$.

But such bounds are not possible if $I(a)$ and $J(b)$ diverge (because then we can chooses some $a > n$ and $ b > n$ that make $I(a) + J(b)$ outside the bounds). Therefore $I(a)$ and $J(b)$ must converge if $E[X]$ is finite.

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  • $\begingroup$ Ordinarily, we wouldn't be so restrictive. As an example, suppose $Y$ is a non-negative variable with density $f_Y(y)=1/(1+y)^2$ and let $X = y\sin(y).$ Wouldn't you express the expectation as $$E[X]=\int_0^\infty y\sin(y)f_Y(y)\,\mathrm dy = \int_0^\infty \frac{y\sin(y)}{(1+y)^2}\mathrm dy\ \text{?}$$ It is interesting that this has a finite Riemann integral but is not Lebesgue integrable. $\endgroup$
    – whuber
    Commented Oct 6 at 16:41
  • $\begingroup$ @whuber typically we will make computations like that. But if the expectation is defined as the improper Riemann integral $E[X] = \int_{-\infty}{\infty} x f(x) dx$ then it won't work all the time. $\endgroup$ Commented Oct 6 at 18:13
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    $\begingroup$ @whuber it is a bit contrived, but we could create a Cauchy variable $X$ from a uniform variable $Y$ by mapping it piecewise alternatingly to negative and positive pieces of a Cauchy such that the computation of the expectation in the indirect integral converges, eg we can make $$E[X] = \lim_{a \to 1} \int_0^a g(y) f_Y(y) dy = 0$$ what it requires is that the pieces become increasingly small such that the increments of the integral decrease and the limit exists. $\endgroup$ Commented Oct 6 at 19:17

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