Is it true that if $X_1, X_2, \ldots ,X_n$ are independent random variables, then \begin{align} & f_{X_1,X_2,\ldots,X_n}(x_1,x_2,\ldots,x_n) \\ = {} & f_{X_1}(x_1)\times f_{X_2}(x_2) \times \cdots \times f_{X_n}(x_n) \end{align} (i.e. joint probability density of independent random variables is equal to the product of marginal densities) ?
If so, what is the proof behind this theorem (or should the statement be treated as the definition of independence, rather than a theorem)? It's not a homework, I am asking because I am curious what the proof is.
Thank you,