Paraphrasing Casella and Berger (2002): A hypothesis test is defined by a null hypothesis $H_0: \theta \in \Theta_0 $ and an alternative hypothesis $H_1: \theta \in \Theta_0^c = \bar{H_0}$, where $\Theta$ is a set of possible values of the population parameter $\theta$, and $\Theta_0^c = \Theta - \Theta_0 $.
In the Frequentist setting, $\theta$ is an unknown but fixed quantity (meaning, it is non-random). As a result, for a given set $\Theta_0$, the null hypothesis $H_0$ is strictly True or False (but we do not know which). The alternative hypothesis, being the negation, is correspondingly False or True.
Let our test statistic be $\hat{\theta} = f(X_1, ..., X_n)$. We define the rejection region $RR \subset Range(\hat{\theta})$ as the set of values of the test statistic $\hat{\theta}$ for which we choose to reject $H_0$. As our sample $X_1, ..., X_n$ is random, $\hat{\theta}$ is a random variable, and so the quantity $p(\hat{\theta} \in RR)$ is a valid probability, similar to simpler probabilities like $p(X \le 5)$
So far so good. However, my confusion begins when we start to define Type I errors. A Type I error is when we reject $H_0$ even though it is True. This is defined mathematically as:
$$ \alpha = p(\hat{\theta} \in RR | H_0 \text{ is True}) = p(\hat{\theta} \in RR | \theta \in \Theta_0) $$
This probability makes no sense to me. $\theta$ is not a random variable, so $\theta \in \Theta_0$ is not a probabilistic event, it is a True-or-False value. The framework of probability (as far as I understand it) does not allow us to meaningfully condition on real values or booleans, only on events.
What is going on here? The only meaningful interpretation I can make is if $\theta$ is a random variable, which violates the core idea of Frequentist statistics.