The standard bigram model, (for example defined here) defines a probability distribution over a corpus $V$ based on the following principles:
- The marginal probability of a word $w$ is defined as its count in $V$ divided by the total number of words (counting repetitions) in $V$: $P(w) = \text{count}(w) / |V|$
- The conditional probability of a word to follow another word is defined intuitively as the ratio of the count of the bigram to the count of the first word: $p(w_2|w_1) = \text{count}(w_1 w_2) / \text{count}(w_1)$
- (Markov Assumption): the probability of a sentence (a sequence of words) can be calculated by the chain rule: $p(w_1 w_2 ... w_n) = p(w_1) p(w_2|w_1) p(w_3|w_1 w_2)... \approx p(w_1) p(w_2|w_1) p(w_3|w_2) ...$
However, this does not seem to define a proper probability distribution. For example, take a corpus $V = \text{"foo bar baz"}$. Then, take the joint distribution defined over all possible bigrams $w_1 w_2$. By our principles:
\begin{equation} p(w_1 w_2) = p(w_1) p(w_2|w_1) = [\text{count}(w_1) / 3][\text{count}(w_1 w_2) / \text{count}(w_1)] \end{equation}
If $w_1 w_2$ is not in the corpus, it is clear that $p(w_1 w_2) = 0$. Therefore, the only nonzero entries in the joint distribution are $p(\text{foo bar}) = p(\text{bar baz}) = 1/3$. The sum of these is $2/3 \neq 1$, so isn't this distribution improper?