I am told the following proof is incorrect, but I cannot understand why.
Consider $X_{(1)}, \ldots, X_{(n)}$ are the order statistics of a random sample of size $n$. I want to show that the order statistics are sufficient. So I wrote down:
$$P(X_1, \ldots, X_n|X_{(1)}, \ldots, X_{(n)})= \tfrac{1}{n!}$$
as given the vector of order statistics, there are $n!$ possibilities for the sample $X_1, \ldots, X_n$.
As we are in an i.i.d. case, then each vector is equiprobable, and so the equality follows. I am told this is not true specially in the case of discrete random variables. I don't see how it is wrong though. Any explanation would be great.